Physics Class 9 MCQs with Explanations [10,000+]

Looking for Physics class 9 MCQs with detailed explanations? Dive into our comprehensive guide tailored for Pakistani students. Master fundamental concepts through strategically crafted multiple-choice questions accompanied by clear explanations. Enhance your understanding and ace your exams effortlessly!

Welcome to our comprehensive guide on Class 9 Physics MCQs tailored for Pakistani students. With 10,000+ MCQs accompanied by detailed explanations, this resource is meticulously crafted to aid your understanding and preparation. Whether you’re gearing up for exams or aiming to strengthen your grasp on Physics concepts, our guide is your pathway to success. Let’s embark on this journey of exploration and mastery together!

10,000+ Physics Class 9 MCQs Chapter wise

Access dedicated chapters for Class 9 Physics MCQs, organized by topic for easy navigation and focused study. Each chapter contains 1000+ MCQs, providing ample practice opportunities to reinforce learning and master Physics concepts effectively. To learn the MCQs for each Just click on each chapter name given below.

Chapter #Chapter Name
1Physical Quantities
2Kinematics
3Dynamics
4Turning Effect of Forces
5Gravitation
6Work And Energy
7Properties of Matter
8Thermal Properties of Matter
9Transfer of Heat

100+ Physics Class 9 MCQs All Chapters

Explore a comprehensive collection of 100 MCQs covering all chapters of the Class 9 Physics syllabus, each accompanied by detailed explanations to facilitate understanding and comprehension.

  1. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
    a) Velocity
    b) Force
    c) Speed
    d) Acceleration
    Correct Answer: c) Speed
    Explanation: Scalar quantities have magnitude only, and speed, being the magnitude of velocity, is a scalar.
  2. An object moves with a constant speed of 5 m/s. What is its velocity?
    a) 0 m/s
    b) 5 m/s
    c) Depends on direction
    d) Cannot be determined
    Correct Answer: c) Depends on direction
    Explanation: Velocity is a vector quantity and requires both magnitude and direction. Since the direction is not specified, the velocity cannot be determined.
  3. What is the SI unit of force?
    a) Newton
    b) Kilogram
    c) Joule
    d) Watt
    Correct Answer: a) Newton
    Explanation: The SI unit of force is the Newton (N), named after Sir Isaac Newton.
  4. If an object experiences no net force, it will:
    a) Remain at rest
    b) Move with constant velocity
    c) Accelerate
    d) Experience friction
    Correct Answer: b) Move with constant velocity
    Explanation: According to Newton’s first law of motion, an object will remain in its state of motion (including being at rest) unless acted upon by an external force.
  5. What is the relationship between force, mass, and acceleration, as per Newton’s second law of motion?
    a) F = ma
    b) F = \frac{m}{a}
    c) F = \frac{a}{m}
    d) a = \frac{F}{m}
    Correct Answer: a) F = ma
    Explanation: Newton’s second law states that the force acting on an object is equal to the mass of the object multiplied by its acceleration.
  6. Which of the following is NOT a type of force?
    a) Gravitational force
    b) Frictional force
    c) Magnetic force
    d) Time force
    Correct Answer: d) Time force
    Explanation: Time is not a force; it is a dimension or a measurement of duration.
  7. What causes an object to experience a centripetal force when moving in a circle?
    a) Inertia
    b) Gravity
    c) Friction
    d) Acceleration
    Correct Answer: d) Acceleration
    Explanation: Centripetal force is required to keep an object moving in a circular path, and it is provided by the acceleration towards the center of the circle.
  8. What is the formula to calculate gravitational force between two objects?
    a) F = \frac{G \cdot m_1 \cdot m_2}{r^2}
    b) F = G \cdot m_1 \cdot m_2 \cdot r^2
    c) F = \frac{m_1 \cdot m_2}{G \cdot r^2}
    d) F = G \cdot r^2 \div m_1 \cdot m_2
    Correct Answer: a) F = \frac{G \cdot m_1 \cdot m_2}{r^2}
    Explanation: The formula for gravitational force between two objects is given by Newton’s law of universal gravitation.
  9. A satellite orbits the Earth in a circular path. What provides the necessary centripetal force for its motion?
    a) Earth’s gravitational pull
    b) Satellite’s engines
    c) Solar radiation
    d) Friction with the atmosphere
    Correct Answer: a) Earth’s gravitational pull
    Explanation: The gravitational force between the satellite and the Earth provides the centripetal force required for the circular motion.
  10. What is the SI unit of work and energy?
    a) Watt
    b) Joule
    c) Newton
    d) Meter
    Correct Answer: b) Joule
    Explanation: Both work and energy are measured in joules (J) in the SI system.
  11. Which of the following statements about work is true?
    a) Work is done only if the object moves a certain distance.
    b) Work done by a force is always positive.
    c) Work done against the direction of motion is negative.
    d) Work done by a force is independent of displacement.
    Correct Answer: c) Work done against the direction of motion is negative.
    Explanation: When a force acts opposite to the direction of motion, the work done is negative as per the definition of work.
  12. What is the relationship between power, work, and time?
    a) P = \frac{W}{t}
    b) P = \frac{t}{W}
    c) P = W \cdot t
    d) P = \frac{W}{t^2}
    Correct Answer: a) P = \frac{W}{t}
    Explanation: Power is defined as the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred, so it is given by the work done divided by the time taken.
  13. Which of the following is an example of potential energy?
    a) A moving car
    b) A battery
    c) A stretched spring
    d) A spinning top
    Correct Answer: c) A stretched spring
    Explanation: Potential energy is energy stored in an object due to its position or configuration, such as a stretched spring.
  14. According to the law of conservation of energy, in a closed system:
    a) Energy is created
    b) Energy is destroyed
    c) Energy remains constant
    d) Energy changes form continuously
    Correct Answer: c) Energy remains constant
    Explanation: The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another.
  15. Which of the following is an example of conduction?
    a) Boiling water in a kettle
    b) Cooking food in a microwave
    c) Feeling warmth from a campfire
    d) Heating a metal rod at one end
    Correct Answer: d) Heating a metal rod at one end
    Explanation: Conduction is the transfer of heat through a material due to temperature difference, as seen when heating a metal rod at one end.
  16. How does the rate of heat transfer by convection compare to conduction?
    a) Convection is faster
    b) Conduction is faster
    c) They transfer heat at the same rate
    d) It depends on the materials involved
    Correct Answer: a) Convection is faster
    Explanation: Convection involves the movement of fluids, which allows for faster heat transfer compared to conduction through solids.
  17. What type of heat transfer does not require a medium?
    a) Conduction b) Convection
    c) Radiation
    d) Conduction and convection
    Correct Answer: c) Radiation
    Explanation: Radiation is the transfer of heat energy through electromagnetic waves and does not require a medium.
  18. What property of a material determines its specific heat capacity?
    a) Mass
    b) Volume
    c) Density
    d) Composition
    Correct Answer: d) Composition
    Explanation: Specific heat capacity is a measure of how much heat energy is required to raise the temperature of a given mass of a substance by one degree Celsius, and it depends on the material’s composition.
  19. Which of the following is an example of a fluid?
    a) Ice
    b) Wood
    c) Air
    d) Metal
    Correct Answer: c) Air
    Explanation: A fluid is a substance that can flow and take the shape of its container, such as liquids and gases like air.
  20. What is the relationship between pressure, force, and area?
    a) P = \frac{F}{A}
    b) P = F \cdot A
    c) P = \frac{A}{F}
    d) P = \frac{A}{F^2}
    Correct Answer: a) P = \frac{F}{A}
    Explanation: Pressure is defined as force per unit area, so it is calculated by dividing the force applied by the area over which it acts.
  21. How does the pressure of a fluid change with depth?
    a) Increases linearly
    b) Decreases linearly
    c) Remains constant
    d) Depends on the fluid’s density
    Correct Answer: a) Increases linearly
    Explanation: According to Pascal’s law, pressure in a fluid increases with depth due to the weight of the fluid above pushing down.
  22. Which of the following statements about buoyant force is correct?
    a) Buoyant force acts upward on an object submerged in a fluid.
    b) Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object.
    c) Buoyant force is independent of the object’s volume.
    d) Buoyant force is always greater than the weight of the object.
    Correct Answer: b) Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object.
    Explanation: Archimedes’ principle states that the buoyant force acting on an object submerged in a fluid is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object.
  23. Which of the following factors affects the buoyant force acting on an object submerged in a fluid?
    a) The density of the object
    b) The mass of the object
    c) The shape of the object
    d) The temperature of the fluid
    Correct Answer: c) The shape of the object
    Explanation: The buoyant force depends on the volume of the fluid displaced by the object, which is influenced by the object’s shape.
  24. What is the relationship between the volume of a gas and its pressure, as per Boyle’s law?
    a) PV = k (constant)
    b) P \propto V
    c) P = V^2
    d) P = \frac{1}{V}
    Correct Answer: b) P \propto V
    Explanation: Boyle’s law states that at constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume.
  25. Which of the following factors affects the speed of sound in a medium?
    a) Temperature
    b) Density
    c) Pressure
    d) All of the above
    Correct Answer: d) All of the above
    Explanation: The speed of sound depends on the properties of the medium, including temperature, density, and pressure.
  26. What is the SI unit of frequency?
    a) Hertz
    b) Meter
    c) Second
    d) Pascal
    Correct Answer: a) Hertz
    Explanation: Frequency is the number of cycles or vibrations per unit time and is measured in Hertz (Hz).
  27. Which of the following is true about the relationship between wavelength and frequency?
    a) They are inversely proportional.
    b) They are directly proportional.
    c) They are unrelated.
    d) It depends on the medium.
    Correct Answer: a) They are inversely proportional.
    Explanation: The wavelength and frequency of a wave are inversely proportional to each other, as given by the equation: v = f \cdot \lambda.
  28. In which medium does sound travel the fastest?
    a) Air
    b) Water
    c) Vacuum
    d) Steel
    Correct Answer: d) Steel
    Explanation: Sound travels fastest in solids like steel due to the high density and strong intermolecular forces.
  29. What causes the refraction of light?
    a) Absorption
    b) Reflection
    c) Change in speed
    d) Diffraction
    Correct Answer: c) Change in speed
    Explanation: Refraction occurs when light changes speed as it passes from one medium to another, causing it to bend.
  30. Which of the following statements about convex lenses is true?
    a) They diverge parallel rays of light.
    b) They form virtual, upright, and diminished images.
    c) They have a negative focal length.
    d) They converge parallel rays of light.
    Correct Answer: d) They converge parallel rays of light.
    Explanation: Convex lenses are thicker in the middle and converge parallel rays of light to a focal point.
  31. What type of mirror always forms a virtual image?
    a) Concave mirror
    b) Convex mirror
    c) Plane mirror
    d) Spherical mirror
    Correct Answer: c) Plane mirror
    Explanation: A plane mirror forms a virtual image that is upright and the same size as the object.
  32. Which of the following factors affects the amount of heat absorbed or released during a change of state?
    a) Mass
    b) Volume
    c) Temperature
    d) Specific heat capacity
    Correct Answer: a) Mass
    Explanation: The amount of heat absorbed or released during a change of state depends on the mass of the substance undergoing the change.
  33. What is the heat of fusion?
    a) The amount of heat required to change the temperature of a substance by 1°C
    b) The amount of heat required to change a substance from solid to liquid at its melting point
    c) The amount of heat required to change a substance from liquid to gas at its boiling point
    d) The amount of heat required to change the temperature of a substance by 1 K
    Correct Answer: b) The amount of heat required to change a substance from solid to liquid at its melting point
    Explanation: Heat of fusion is the energy required to change a substance from solid to liquid phase at its melting point.
  34. Which of the following statements about the expansion of solids is true?
    a) All solids expand equally when heated

b) Solids expand more than liquids and gases.
c) Solids do not expand when heated.
d) Solids expand due to the random motion of particles.
Correct Answer: d) Solids expand due to the random motion of particles.
Explanation: Solids expand when heated because the increased thermal energy causes the particles to vibrate more vigorously, leading to increased separation between particles and thus expansion.

  1. What is the specific heat capacity of water?
    a) 1 J/g°C
    b) 4 J/g°C
    c) 10 J/g°C
    d) 100 J/g°C
    Correct Answer: b) 4 J/g°C
    Explanation: Water has a relatively high specific heat capacity of 4 J/g°C, which means it can absorb or release a large amount of heat energy with minimal temperature change.
  2. Which of the following is an example of a natural convection current?
    a) Boiling water in a kettle
    b) Warm air rising from a heater
    c) A metal rod conducting heat
    d) Heating water in a microwave
    Correct Answer: b) Warm air rising from a heater
    Explanation: Natural convection occurs when warmer, less dense fluid rises and cooler, denser fluid sinks due to buoyancy forces.
  3. What is the SI unit of pressure?
    a) Pascal
    b) Newton
    c) Joule
    d) Watt
    Correct Answer: a) Pascal
    Explanation: The SI unit of pressure is the Pascal (Pa), which is equal to one Newton per square meter.
  4. What happens to the boiling point of a liquid at higher altitudes?
    a) It decreases
    b) It increases
    c) It remains the same
    d) It depends on the type of liquid
    Correct Answer: a) It decreases
    Explanation: At higher altitudes, the atmospheric pressure decreases, causing the boiling point of a liquid to decrease as well.
  5. Which of the following is an example of a good conductor of heat?
    a) Wood
    b) Plastic
    c) Glass
    d) Copper
    Correct Answer: d) Copper
    Explanation: Copper is an excellent conductor of heat due to its high thermal conductivity.
  6. What causes an object to float in a fluid?
    a) Its weight is less than the buoyant force.
    b) Its weight is greater than the buoyant force.
    c) Its density is less than the density of the fluid.
    d) Its density is greater than the density of the fluid.
    Correct Answer: a) Its weight is less than the buoyant force.
    Explanation: An object floats in a fluid when the buoyant force acting on it (due to displaced fluid) is equal to or greater than its weight.
  7. Which of the following is an example of a non-ohmic conductor?
    a) Copper wire
    b) Silicon diode
    c) Carbon resistor
    d) Aluminum capacitor
    Correct Answer: b) Silicon diode
    Explanation: A non-ohmic conductor does not obey Ohm’s law and has a nonlinear current-voltage relationship, as seen in semiconductor devices like diodes.
  8. What is the direction of the electric field lines between two opposite charges?
    a) Away from the positive charge and toward the negative charge
    b) Toward the positive charge and away from the negative charge
    c) Parallel to the line connecting the charges
    d) Radially outward from both charges
    Correct Answer: a) Away from the positive charge and toward the negative charge
    Explanation: Electric field lines point away from positive charges and toward negative charges, indicating the direction a positive test charge would move if placed in the field.
  9. Which of the following statements about resistors in series is true?
    a) The total resistance is equal to the sum of individual resistances.
    b) The total resistance is always greater than the individual resistances.
    c) The total resistance is always less than the individual resistances.
    d) The total resistance is inversely proportional to the individual resistances.
    Correct Answer: a) The total resistance is equal to the sum of individual resistances.
    Explanation: In a series circuit, the total resistance is the sum of individual resistances, as current has to pass through each resistor.
  10. What is the voltage across a closed circuit with no resistance?
    a) Zero
    b) Positive
    c) Infinite
    d) Depends on the current
    Correct Answer: a) Zero
    Explanation: In a closed circuit with no resistance, there is no voltage drop, so the voltage across the circuit is zero.
  11. What determines the brightness of a light bulb in an electrical circuit?
    a) Voltage
    b) Current
    c) Resistance
    d) Power
    Correct Answer: d) Power
    Explanation: The brightness of a light bulb, or its luminous intensity, is directly proportional to the power dissipated by the bulb, which depends on the voltage and current.
  12. Which of the following statements about parallel circuits is true?
    a) The total resistance is equal to the sum of individual resistances.
    b) The total current is the same through each branch.
    c) Adding more branches decreases the total resistance.
    d) The voltage drop across each branch is different.
    Correct Answer: b) The total current is the same through each branch.
    Explanation: In a parallel circuit, the total current entering the junction is equal to the total current leaving the junction, so the current through each branch is the same.
  13. What is the function of a diode in an electrical circuit?
    a) To regulate voltage
    b) To amplify current
    c) To convert AC to DC
    d) To allow current flow in one direction
    Correct Answer: d) To allow current flow in one direction
    Explanation: A diode is a semiconductor device that allows current to flow in one direction while blocking it in the opposite direction, acting as a one-way valve for electrical current.
  14. Which of the following materials is a good insulator?
    a) Copper
    b) Aluminum
    c) Rubber
    d) Silver
    Correct Answer: c) Rubber
    Explanation: Rubber is an excellent insulator as it has high electrical resistance and does not conduct electricity easily.
  15. What determines the pitch of a sound produced by a vibrating object?
    a) Amplitude
    b) Frequency
    c) Wavelength
    d) Intensity
    Correct Answer: b) Frequency
    Explanation: The pitch of a sound is determined by its frequency, which is the number of vibrations per unit time.
  16. Which of the following phenomena is explained by the wave theory of light?
    a) Reflection
    b) Refraction
    c) Interference
    d) Polarization
    Correct Answer: c) Interference
    Explanation: The wave theory of light explains phenomena like interference, diffraction, and polarization based on the wave nature of light.
  17. What type of mirror forms an inverted, real image?
    a) Convex mirror
    b) Concave mirror
    c) Plane mirror
    d) Spherical mirror
    Correct Answer: b) Concave mirror
    Explanation: Concave mirrors can form both real and virtual images, depending on the position of the object relative to the mirror.
  18. Which of the following factors affects the speed of sound in a gas?
    a) Density
    b) Pressure
    c) Temperature
    d) All of the above
    Correct Answer: d) All of the above
    Explanation: The speed of sound in a gas depends on its temperature, pressure, and density, as described by the ideal gas law.
  19. What is the relationship between the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection for a reflected ray of light?
    a) They are equal
    b) The angle of incidence is always greater
    c) The angle of reflection is always greater
    d) They are unrelated
    Correct Answer: a) They are equal
    Explanation: According to the law of reflection, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection for a reflected ray of light.
  20. Which of the following materials is a good conductor of electricity?
    a) Plastic
    b) Glass
    c) Copper
    d) Rubber
    Correct Answer: c) Copper
    Explanation: Copper is an excellent conductor of electricity due to its high electrical conductivity.
  21. Which of the following statements about static electricity is true?
    a) It only occurs in conductors.
    b) It is always harmful to living organisms.
    c) It is caused by the movement of charged particles.
    d) It results from an imbalance of electric charges on an object.
    Correct Answer: d) It results from an imbalance of electric charges on an object.
    Explanation: Static electricity occurs when there is an imbalance of electric charges on an object, leading to the buildup of charge.
  22. What happens to the resistance of a conductor when its temperature increases?
    a) Increases
    b) Decreases
    c) Remains constant
    d) Depends on the material
    Correct Answer: a) Increases
    Explanation: In most conductors, an increase in temperature leads to an increase in resistance due to the greater vibration of atoms, which hinders the flow of electrons.
  23. Which of the following statements about nuclear fusion is true?
    a) It occurs in nuclear fission reactors.
    b) It releases energy by combining small nuclei into a larger one.
    c) It is the process by which a heavy nucleus splits into smaller nuclei.
    d) It is used in nuclear power plants to generate electricity.
    Correct Answer: b) It releases energy by combining small nuclei into a larger one.
    Explanation: Nuclear fusion is the process by which two light atomic nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus, releasing a large amount of energy in the process.
  24. What is the SI unit of electric charge?
    a) Ampere
    b) Coulomb
    c) Volt
    d) Ohm
    Correct Answer: b) Coulomb
    Explanation: Electric charge is measured in coulombs (C), named after Charles-Augustin de Coulomb.
  25. Which of the following factors affects the strength of the gravitational force between two objects?
    a) Mass of the objects
    b) Distance between the objects
    c) Both a and b
    d) Neither a nor b
    Correct Answer: c) Both a and b
    Explanation: The gravitational force between two objects depends on their masses and the distance between them, as described by Newton’s law of universal gravitation.
  26. Which of the following statements about magnets is true?
    a) Like poles attract and unlike poles repel.
    b) Magnets always have only one pole.
    c) The Earth’s magnetic field is generated by magnetic materials in its core.
    d) Heating a magnet weakens its magnetic properties.
    Correct Answer: a) Like poles attract and unlike poles repel.
    Explanation: According to the law of magnetism, like poles repel each other, and unlike poles attract each other.
  27. What determines the brightness of a light source?
    a) Wavelength
    b) Frequency
    c) Intensity
    d) Amplitude
    Correct Answer: c) Intensity
    Explanation: The brightness of a light source depends on its intensity, which is related to the amount of light energy emitted per unit time.
  28. What is the purpose of a transformer in an electrical circuit?
    a) To regulate voltage
    b) To amplify current
    c) To convert AC to DC
    d) To change the voltage of an alternating current
    Correct Answer: d) To change the voltage of an alternating current
    Explanation: A transformer is a device used to change the voltage of an alternating current by electromagnetic induction.
  29. Which of the following is an example of an insulator?
    a) Copper
    b) Aluminum
    c) Rubber
    d) Silver
    Correct Answer: c) Rubber
    Explanation: Rubber is an insulator as it does not conduct electricity easily and has high electrical resistance.
  30. What determines the direction of the force experienced by a charged particle moving through a magnetic field?
    a) The charge of the particle
    b) The speed of the particle
    c) The mass of the particle
    d) The direction of the magnetic field
    Correct Answer: d) The direction of the magnetic field
    Explanation: The force experienced by a charged particle moving through a magnetic field is perpendicular to both the velocity of the particle and the direction of the magnetic field.
  31. Which of the following statements about alternating current (AC) is true?
    a) It flows in only one direction.
    b) It reverses direction periodically.
    c) It has a constant magnitude.
    d) It is used in batteries.
    Correct Answer: b) It reverses direction periodically.
    Explanation: Alternating current changes direction periodically, typically in the form of a sine wave, unlike direct current (DC), which flows in one direction.
  32. What is the SI unit of magnetic field strength?
    a) Tesla
    b) Weber
    c) Henry
    d) Gauss
    Correct Answer: a) Tesla
    Explanation: The SI unit of magnetic field strength is the tesla (T), named after Nikola Tesla.
  33. What is the resistance of a superconductor?
    a) Infinite
    b) Zero
    c) Same as a good conductor
    d) Same as an insulator
    Correct Answer: b) Zero
    Explanation: Superconductors exhibit zero electrical resistance when cooled below their critical temperature.
  34. Which of the following statements about alpha particles is true?
    a) They are negatively charged.
    b) They are emitted during beta decay.
    c) They have a mass of 1 atomic mass unit.
    d) They penetrate materials deeply.
    Correct Answer: c) They have a mass of 1 atomic mass unit.
    Explanation: Alpha particles are positively charged particles consisting of two protons and two neutrons, with a mass of approximately 4 atomic mass units.
  35. Which of the following statements about beta particles is true?
    a) They have a negative charge.
    b) They are more massive than alpha particles.
    c) They have no mass or charge.
    d) They are stopped by a sheet of paper.
    Correct Answer: a) They have a negative charge.
    Explanation: Beta particles are high-energy electrons (β−) or positrons (β+) emitted during beta decay, with a negative charge.
  36. What is the SI unit of activity in radioactive decay?
    a) Curie
    b) Becquerel
    c) Gray
    d) Sievert
    Correct Answer: b) Becquerel
    Explanation: The SI unit of activity in radioactive decay is the Becquerel (Bq), which represents one decay event per second.
  37. Which of the following statements about nuclear fusion is true?
    a) It occurs in nuclear fission reactors.
    b) It releases energy by splitting heavy nuclei into smaller ones.
    c) It is the process by which a heavy nucleus splits into smaller nuclei.
    d) It powers the Sun and other stars.
    Correct Answer: d) It powers the Sun and other stars.
    Explanation: Nuclear fusion is the primary process by which stars like the Sun produce energy, through the fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium nuclei.
  38. What is the SI unit of power?
    a) Joule
    b) Watt
    c) Newton
    d) Pascal
    Correct Answer: b) Watt
    Explanation: Power is measured in watts (W), named after James Watt, and represents the rate of energy transfer or work done per unit time.
  39. Which of the following statements about transverse waves is true?
    a) The direction of vibration is parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
    b) The particles of the medium move parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
    c) Sound waves are examples of transverse waves.
    d) Light waves are examples of transverse waves.
    Correct Answer: d) Light waves are examples of transverse waves.
    Explanation: Transverse waves have particle motion perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, and light waves are a common example of transverse waves.
  40. What is the relationship between the frequency and wavelength of a wave?
    a) They are directly proportional.
    b) They are inversely proportional.
    c) They are unrelated.
    d) It depends on the medium.
    Correct Answer: b) They are inversely proportional.
    Explanation: The frequency and wavelength of a wave are inversely proportional to each other, as given by the equation: v = f \cdot \lambda.
  41. What determines the pitch of a sound wave?
    a) Amplitude
    b) Frequency
    c) Wavelength
    d) Intensity
    Correct Answer: b) Frequency
    Explanation: The pitch of a sound wave is determined by its frequency, which is the number of vibrations per unit time.
  42. Which of the following statements about refraction is true?
    a) It occurs when a wave changes direction due to passing through a medium.
    b) It only occurs with light waves.
    c) The speed of the wave remains constant during refraction.
    d) Refraction always causes a decrease in wavelength.
    Correct Answer: a) It occurs when a wave changes direction due to passing through a medium.
    Explanation: Refraction is the bending of a wave when it enters a medium where its speed changes, causing a change in direction.
  43. What determines the focal length of a lens?
    a) Its curvature
    b) Its thickness
    c) Its material
    d) Its diameter
    Correct Answer: a) Its curvature
    Explanation: The focal length of a lens is determined by its curvature, with more curved lenses having shorter focal lengths.
  44. Which of the following types of lens can form both real and virtual images?
    a) Convex lens
    b) Concave lens
    c) Plane lens
    d) Cylindrical lens
    Correct Answer: a) Convex lens
    Explanation: Convex lenses can form both real and virtual images, depending on the position of the object relative to the lens.
  45. What is the purpose of a capacitor in an electrical circuit?
    a) To store electrical charge
    b) To regulate voltage
    c) To amplify current
    d) To convert AC to DC
    Correct Answer: a) To store electrical charge
    Explanation: A capacitor is a passive electronic component used to store and release electrical energy in an electrical circuit.
  46. Which of the following is a measure of the amount of charge flowing through a circuit per unit time?
    a) Voltage
    b) Current
    c) Resistance
    d) Power
    Correct Answer: b) Current
    Explanation: Electric current is the rate of flow of electric charge through a conductor per unit time and is measured in amperes (A).
  47. What is the SI unit of electrical resistance?
    a) Volt
    b) Ohm
    c) Ampere
    d) Joule
    Correct Answer: b) Ohm
    Explanation: Electrical resistance is measured in ohms (Ω), named after Georg Simon Ohm.

86. Which of the following statements about series circuits is true?
a) The total resistance is equal to the sum of individual resistances.
b) The total current is the same through each branch.
c) Adding more branches decreases the total resistance.
d) The voltage drop across each branch is different.
Correct Answer: a) The total resistance is equal to the sum of individual resistances.
Explanation: In a series circuit, the total resistance is the sum of individual resistances, as the current has to pass through each resistor.

  1. Which of the following statements about magnets is true?
    a) Like poles attract and unlike poles repel.
    b) Magnets always have only one pole.
    c) The Earth’s magnetic field is generated by magnetic materials in its core.
    d) Heating a magnet strengthens its magnetic properties.
    Correct Answer: a) Like poles attract and unlike poles repel.
    Explanation: According to the law of magnetism, like poles repel each other, and unlike poles attract each other.
  2. What determines the direction of the force experienced by a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field?
    a) The charge of the wire
    b) The speed of the wire
    c) The length of the wire
    d) The direction of the magnetic field
    Correct Answer: d) The direction of the magnetic field
    Explanation: The force experienced by a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field is perpendicular to both the current direction and the magnetic field direction, as described by the right-hand rule.
  3. Which of the following statements about transformers is true?
    a) They convert DC to AC.
    b) They operate on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
    c) They are only used in power generation.
    d) They have a single coil of wire.
    Correct Answer: b) They operate on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
    Explanation: Transformers work based on electromagnetic induction, where a changing magnetic field induces an electromotive force in a nearby coil of wire.
  4. What is the function of a rectifier in an electrical circuit?
    a) To regulate voltage
    b) To amplify current
    c) To convert AC to DC
    d) To store electrical charge
    Correct Answer: c) To convert AC to DC
    Explanation: A rectifier is an electrical device that converts alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC), allowing the flow of current in one direction.
  5. Which of the following statements about nuclear fusion is true?
    a) It occurs in nuclear fission reactors.
    b) It releases energy by splitting heavy nuclei into smaller ones.
    c) It is the process by which a heavy nucleus splits into smaller nuclei.
    d) It powers the Sun and other stars.
    Correct Answer: d) It powers the Sun and other stars.
    Explanation: Nuclear fusion is the primary process by which stars like the Sun produce energy, through the fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium nuclei.
  6. What is the SI unit of electric charge?
    a) Ampere
    b) Coulomb
    c) Volt
    d) Ohm
    Correct Answer: b) Coulomb
    Explanation: Electric charge is measured in coulombs (C), named after Charles-Augustin de Coulomb.
  7. Which of the following factors affects the strength of the gravitational force between two objects?
    a) Mass of the objects
    b) Distance between the objects
    c) Both a and b
    d) Neither a nor b
    Correct Answer: c) Both a and b
    Explanation: The gravitational force between two objects depends on their masses and the distance between them, as described by Newton’s law of universal gravitation.
  8. Which of the following statements about magnets is true?
    a) Like poles attract and unlike poles repel.
    b) Magnets always have only one pole.
    c) The Earth’s magnetic field is generated by magnetic materials in its core.
    d) Heating a magnet weakens its magnetic properties.
    Correct Answer: a) Like poles attract and unlike poles repel.
    Explanation: According to the law of magnetism, like poles repel each other, and unlike poles attract each other.
  9. What determines the brightness of a light source?
    a) Wavelength
    b) Frequency
    c) Intensity
    d) Amplitude
    Correct Answer: c) Intensity
    Explanation: The brightness of a light source depends on its intensity, which is related to the amount of light energy emitted per unit time.
  10. What is the purpose of a capacitor in an electrical circuit?
    a) To store electrical charge
    b) To regulate voltage
    c) To amplify current
    d) To convert AC to DC
    Correct Answer: a) To store electrical charge
    Explanation: A capacitor is a passive electronic component used to store and release electrical energy in an electrical circuit.
  11. Which of the following is a measure of the amount of charge flowing through a circuit per unit time?
    a) Voltage
    b) Current
    c) Resistance
    d) Power
    Correct Answer: b) Current
    Explanation: Electric current is the rate of flow of electric charge through a conductor per unit time and is measured in amperes (A).
  12. What is the SI unit of electrical resistance?
    a) Volt
    b) Ohm
    c) Ampere
    d) Joule
    Correct Answer: b) Ohm
    Explanation: Electrical resistance is measured in ohms (Ω), named after Georg Simon Ohm.
  13. Which of the following statements about series circuits is true?
    a) The total resistance is equal to the sum of individual resistances.
    b) The total current is the same through each branch.
    c) Adding more branches decreases the total resistance.
    d) The voltage drop across each branch is different.
    Correct Answer: a) The total resistance is equal to the sum of individual resistances.
    Explanation: In a series circuit, the total resistance is the sum of individual resistances, as the current has to pass through each resistor.
  14. Which of the following statements about magnets is true?
    a) Like poles attract and unlike poles repel.
    b) Magnets always have only one pole.
    c) The Earth’s magnetic field is generated by magnetic materials in its core.
    d) Heating a magnet weakens its magnetic properties.
    Correct Answer: a) Like poles attract and unlike poles repel.
    Explanation: According to the law of magnetism, like poles repel each other, and unlike poles attract each other.
  15. What determines the direction of the force experienced by a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field?
    a) The charge of the wire
    b) The speed of the wire
    c) The length of the wire
    d) The direction of the magnetic field
    Correct Answer: d) The direction of the magnetic field
    Explanation: The force experienced by a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field is perpendicular to both the current direction and the magnetic field direction, as described by the right-hand rule.
  16. Which of the following statements about transformers is true?
    a) They convert DC to AC.
    b) They operate on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
    c) They are only used in power generation.
    d) They have a single coil of wire.
    Correct Answer: b) They operate on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
    Explanation: Transformers work based on electromagnetic induction, where a changing magnetic field induces an electromotive force in a nearby coil of wire.
  17. What is the function of a rectifier in an electrical circuit?
    a) To regulate voltage
    b) To amplify current
    c) To convert AC to DC
    d) To store electrical charge
    Correct Answer: c) To convert AC to DC
    Explanation: A rectifier is an electrical device that converts alternating current (AC) to direct current (DC), allowing the flow of current in one direction.
  18. Which of the following statements about nuclear fusion is true?
    a) It occurs in nuclear fission reactors.
    b) It releases energy by splitting heavy nuclei into smaller ones.
    c) It is the process by which a heavy nucleus splits into smaller nuclei.
    d) It powers the Sun and other stars.
    Correct Answer: d) It powers the Sun and other stars.
    Explanation: Nuclear fusion is the primary process by which stars like the Sun produce energy, through the fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium nuclei.
  19. What is the SI unit of electric charge?
    a) Ampere
    b) Coulomb
    c) Volt
    d) Ohm
    Correct Answer: b) Coulomb
    Explanation: Electric charge is measured in coulombs (C), named after Charles-Augustin de Coulomb.
  20. Which of the following factors affects the strength of the gravitational force between two objects?
    a) Mass of the objects
    b) Distance between the objects
    c) Both a and b
    d) Neither a nor b
    Correct Answer: c) Both a and b
    Explanation: The gravitational force between two objects depends on their masses and the distance between them, as described by Newton’s law of universal gravitation.
  21. Which of the following statements about magnets is true?
    a) Like poles attract and unlike poles repel.
    b) Magnets always have only one pole.
    c) The Earth’s magnetic field is generated by magnetic materials in its core.
    d) Heating a magnet weakens its magnetic properties.
    Correct Answer: a) Like poles attract and unlike poles repel.
    Explanation: According to the law of magnetism, like poles repel each other, and unlike poles attract each other.
  22. What determines the brightness of a light source?
    a) Wavelength
    b) Frequency
    c) Intensity
    d) Amplitude
    Correct Answer: c) Intensity
    Explanation: The brightness of a light source depends on its intensity, which is related to the amount of light energy emitted per unit time.
  23. What is the purpose of a capacitor in an electrical circuit?
    a) To store electrical charge
    b) To regulate voltage
    c) To amplify current
    d) To convert AC to DC
    Correct Answer: a) To store electrical charge
    Explanation: A capacitor is a passive electronic component used to store and release electrical energy in an electrical circuit.
  24. Which of the following is a measure of the amount of charge flowing through a circuit per unit time?
    a) Voltage
    b) Current
    c) Resistance
    d) Power
    Correct Answer: b) Current
    Explanation: Electric current is the rate of flow of electric charge through a conductor per unit time and is measured in amperes (A).

Embark on your journey to excel in Class 9 Physics with our comprehensive MCQs guide. Engage with the MCQs, explore the explanations, and approach your exams with confidence and preparedness!

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